ТС_Биология_ОГН_10_англ
Internal Summative Assessment
Specification
Subject Biology
(social-humanitarian)
Grade 10
Nur-Sultan 2019
1. AIM OF THE SUMMATIVE ASSESSMENT FOR THE TERM
Summative assessment (SA) is aimed to assess learners’ success in terms their level of knowledge and skills acquired during the term.
Summative assessment checks the achievement of learning objectives for the term planned in the course plan.
2. THE DOCUMENT DEFINING THE CONTENT OF THE SUMMATIVE ASSESSMENT FOR THE TERM
Biology. Subject programme for the senior school (Grades 10-11) in the framework of the curriculum reforms in secondary education initiative.
3. EXPECTED OUTCOMES ON THE SUBJECT “BIOLOGY”, GRADE 10-11.
Knowledge:
- initial biological concepts;
- safety rules during the conduction of experimental and practical works;
- biological processes occurring in the living organisms.
Comprehension:
- significance of the biological processes.
Application:
- basic biological concepts and terms for description of objects, processes, and phenomena in living nature;
- apply obtained knowledge for explanation of conditions for physical and chemical phenomena and processes in living objects.
4. LEVEL OF THINKING SKILLS ON THE SUBJECT ‘‘BIOLOGY’’.
Level of thinking skills | Description | Recommended type of questions |
Knowledge and comprehension | Know specific facts, terms, methods, and techniques. Demonstrate understanding of the subject through correct recall, prediction, and explanation of the information. | MCQ and short answer |
Application | Apply information and previously obtained knowledge in different contexts and new circumstances. Modify learnt procedures. | Short answer and extended answer |
High order skills | Interpret obtained results and information through research of constituents of investigated process. Combine previously obtained knowledge for constructing models; interpret models, which describe real processes; form opinions coming from reference sources. Make conclusions about efficiency and credibility. | Short answer and extended answer |
5. DISTRIBUTION OF LEARNING OBJECTIVES BY LEVELS OF THINKING SKILLS IN THE SECTION OF TERMS
Term | Knowledge and comprehension | Application | Higher order skills |
I | 29% | 43% | 28% |
II | 37% | 63% | - |
III | 18% | 64% | 18% |
IV | 14% | 72% | 14% |
Total | 24% | 61% | 15% |
6. ADMINISTRATION RULES OF SUMMATIVE ASSESSMENT FOR TERM
During the Assessment cover all visual materials like diagrams, schemes, posters, and maps that can serve as prompts for the learners.
At the beginning of the Assessment read out the instructions and inform the learners about the assessment duration. Remind learners that they are not allowed to talk with each other during the Summative Assessment. After the instructions, make sure they have understood given instructions and ask if they have any questions before the start of the assessment.
Ensure that the learners are working individually and not helping each other. During the Summative Assessment learners should not have any access to additional resources that can help them, for example, dictionaries (excluding the cases when it is allowed in specification).
Recommend learners to cross the wrong answers instead of using an eraser.
During the assessment you can answer learners’ questions, regarding the instructions and the assessment duration. You should not spell, paraphrase or provide any information that could give the learner an advantage.
Always tell the learners that they have 5 minutes left before the end of the Summative Assessment.
Tell the learners to stop writing and put down their pens/pencils on the desks at the end of the Summative Assessment.
7. MODERATION AND MARKING
All teachers use the same version of the mark scheme. During the moderation process it is necessary to check learner sample papers with the marks awarded to ensure there are no deviations from the standardized mark scheme.
SPECIFICATION OF SUMMATIVE ASSESSMENT FOR THE TERM 1
Review of summative assessment for the term 1
Duration of the summative assessment – 40 minutes
Total marks – 25 marks
Types of tasks:
MCH - Questions with multiple choice answers.
ShA - Questions that require short answer.
EA - Questions that require an extended answer.
The structure of the summative assessment
This Summative Assessment consists of 10 questions, including 5 questions with multiple choice answers (5 points) and 5 structural questions (20 points) that require short and extended answers. Several learning objectives from one unit can be integrated in structural questions.
In questions with multiple choice answers, the student chooses the correct answer from the proposed answers.
In questions that require short answers, the student writes the answer down in the form of a numerical value, a word or a short sentence.
In questions that require extended answers, the student should show the entire sequence of actions in solving problems to obtain the maximum mark. The ability of the student to choose and apply mathematical techniques in a number of mathematical contexts is assessed. Questions can consist of several structural questions/sub questions.
Annotations used in marking scheme
A – accept, i.e. example of another argument or possible answer;
I – ignore, i.e. part of the answer that is intended, but not required (e.g. units of measurement);
R – reject, i.e. do not award any point for this answer;
ORA – other reverse arguments, i.e. accept answers from the contrary perspective;
OWA – other word alterations, i.e. accept paraphrased answers;
Underline - underlined word is required to award point;
/ - answers given on both sides of slash are synonyms;
AVP – another valid point, i.e. answer which is correct, but has not been included into MS.
Characteristics of tasks of summative assessment for Term 1
Term | Learning objectives | Level of thinking skills | Quantity of tasks * | № of task* | Type of task* | Time to complete, min * | Quantity of marks * | Quantity of marks for the term | ||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||
10.1А Molecular biology and biochemistry |
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| 13 | ||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||
10.1В Cellular biology |
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| 12 | ||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||
| 25 |
Tasks for the Summative Assessment for the term 1
1 The diagram below shows a molecule of water.
State how two molecules of water are held together.
- via ionic bonds
- via peptide bonds
- via hydrogen bonds
- via hydrophobic interactions
[1]
2 Fatty acid is a part of triglycerides. Fatty acids are classified as saturated and unsaturated.
Fatty acid | Formula of fatty acid |
P | C16H30O2 |
Q | C18H34O2 |
R | C20H40O2 |
S | C24H48O2 |
The table below shows the formulas of some fatty acid.
The saturated fatty acid(s) in the table are (is)
- P and Q
- R and S
- P only
- Q only
[1]
3 Which type of bonds holds together an alfa-helix and beta-pleated sheet of protein?
- ionic
- peptide
- disulfide
- hydrogen
[1]
4 The figure shows the diagram of human insulin.
- Define the level of protein structure of insulin in active form.
________________________________________________________________________ [1]
(ii) Explain you answer.
___________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ [1]
(iii) Define one type of bonds for this structure of protein.
________________________________________________________________________ [1]
5 The diagram shows a molecule that is important for living organism.
A forensic sample is tested for the presence of a polymer of this molecule.
(i) Indicate the reagent that should be used to identify this polymer.
________________________________________________________________________ [1]
(ii) Describe the method of identification of this polymer.
___________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ [2]
6 (a) DNA is made up of molecules called nucleotides.
Name three main components of DNA nucleotide.
________________________________________________________________________ [1]
(b) Determine three ways in which the structure of DNA differs from RNA.
______________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ [3]
7 What is the function of the nucleolus?
- The formation and break down of the nuclear envelope
- The formation of rough endoplasmic reticulum
- The synthesis of ribosomal proteins
- The synthesis of rRNA
[1]
8 The diagram shows the structure of the cell.
- Which part of the cell (A-H) defines this cell as a plant cell.
________________________________________________________________________ [1]
- Identify the organelles F and K.
F __________________________________________
K__________________________________________ [2]
9 Fill the table using key words bank (remember, you may use not all words).
Chloroplast | Nucleus | Lysosome |
Golgi apparatus | Ribosome | Endoplasmic reticulum |
Statement | Organelle |
Site of DNA storage | |
Contains hydrolytic enzymes | |
Site of photosynthesis |
[3]
10 The figure below shows the diagram of the fluid mosaic model of a cell surface membrane.
Use lines and the appropriate letters from the table to label each of the following structures on the figure above.
P | Protein for active uptake of potassium ions |
Q | Protein for facilitated diffusion of polar molecules |
R | Receptor site for recognition |
S | Hydrophilic heads of phospholipids on the internal surface of the membrane |
T | Molecule that modifies the fluidity of the membrane |
[5]
Mark scheme
Task № | Answer | Mark | Additional information |
1 | C | 1 | |
2 | B | 1 | |
3 | D | 1 | |
4 (i) | Tertiary | 1 | |
4 (ii) | Disulfide bonds are present AVP | 1 |
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4 (iii) | Disulfide bonds (bridges) / hydrophobic interaction/ ionic bonds | 1 | |
5 (I) | Biuret reagent /CuSO4 (copper sulfate) in NaOH (sodium hydroxide) solution | 1 | |
5 (ii) | Add reagent Observe color - pink to deep violet | 1 1 | A OWA |
6 (a) | Phosphate group, sugar/pentose, nitrogen base | 1 | A named examples, e.g. adenine R uracil/ribose A nucleoside and phosphate groups |
6 (b) | Deoxyribose-ribose; Thymine – Uracil; 2 strands – 1 strand. | 1 1 1 [max 3] | |
7 | D | 1 | |
8 (i) | Any one from: B/cell wall; D/ chloroplast; G/central vacuole | 1 1 1 [max 1] | |
8 (ii) | F – mitochondrion K – Golgi Apparatus/body | 1 1 [max 2] | |
9 | 1 – Nucleus 2 – Lysosome 3 – Chloroplast | 1 1 1 [max 3] | |
10 | P - to protein on right hand side (closed carrier protein) Q - to channel protein on left (open carrier protein) R - to central/ left, sugar chain on glycoprotein S - circle of phospholipids on the lower surface T - to cholesterol | 1 1 1 1 1 [max 5] | 1 mark is awarded for each correctly labeled and denoted structures |
Total | 25 |
SPECIFICATION OF SUMMATIVE ASSESSMENT FOR THE TERM 2
Review of summative assessment for the term 2
Duration of the summative assessment – 40 minutes
Total marks – 25 marks
Types of tasks:
MCH - Questions with multiple choice answers.
ShA - Questions that require short answer.
EA - Questions that require an extended answer.
The structure of the summative assessment
This Summative Assessment consists of 10 questions, including 2 questions with multiple choice answers (2 points) and 8 structural questions (23 points) that require short and extended answers. Several learning objectives from one unit can be integrated in structural questions.
In questions with multiple choice answers, the student chooses the correct answer from the proposed answers.
In questions that require short answers, the student writes the answer down in the form of a numerical value, a word or a short sentence.
In questions that require extended answers, the student should show the entire sequence of actions in solving problems to obtain the maximum mark. The ability of the student to choose and apply mathematical techniques in a number of mathematical contexts is assessed. Questions can consist of several structural questions/sub questions.
Annotations used in marking scheme
A – accept, i.e. example of another argument or possible answer;
I – ignore, i.e. part of the answer that is intended, but not required (e.g. units of measurement);
R – reject, i.e. do not award any point for this answer;
ORA – other reverse arguments, i.e. accept answers from the contrary perspective;
OWA – other word alterations, i.e. accept paraphrased answers;
Underline - underlined word is required to award point;
/ - answers given on both sides of slash are synonyms;
AVP – another valid point, i.e. answer which is correct, but has not been included into MS.
Characteristics of tasks of summative assessment for Term 2
Term | Learning objectives | Level of thinking skills | Quantity of tasks * | № of task* | Type of task* | Time to complete, min * | Quantity of marks * | Quantity of marks for the term | ||||||||||||||||||||||||||||
10.2А Transport of substunces |
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| 5 | ||||||||||||||||||||||||||||
10.2В Respiration |
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| 11 | ||||||||||||||||||||||||||||
10.2С Excretion |
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| 9 | ||||||||||||||||||||||||||||
| 25 |
Tasks for the Summative Assessment for the term 2
1 The Figure below shows the cubs.
(a) Indicate the cube with the smallest surface-area-to-volume ratios. ______________ [1]
(b) Describe the relationship between the cell size and surface-area-to-volume ratio.
___________________________________________________________________________ [1]
2 (a) The diagram shows three examples of transport through the cell membrane
Which process does each arrow show?
1 | 2 | 3 | |
A | active transport | diffusion | facilitated diffusion |
B | diffusion | active transport | facilitated diffusion |
C | diffusion | facilitated diffusion | active transport |
D | facilitated diffusion | diffusion | active transport |
[1]
(b) State two differences in the mechanism of active and passive transport.
1__________________________________________________________________________
2__________________________________________________________________________
[2]
3 A biological molecule is given below.
Indicate the name of the molecule.
- DNA
- ATP
- Thymine
- Cytosine
[1]
4 There are two types of metabolism.
Match the features of every type.
Types of metabolism | Features | ||
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A __________________________________
B __________________________________ [2]
5 State the product (s) of the stages of energy exchange of one glucose molecule.
The product(s) of glycolysis ____________________________________________________
The product(s) of link reactions _________________________________________________
The product(s) of Krebs cycle ___________________________________________________
[3]
6 Determine in which of the given processes both hydrogenation and decarboxylation occur.
A glycolysis
B Krebs cycle
C link reaction
D oxidative phosphorylation
[1]
7 Mitochondrion plays an important role in aerobic respiration.
State 3 evidences that the structure of mitochondrion is related to the cellular respiration processes.
1 _______________________________________________________________________
2________________________________________________________________________
3 _______________________________________________________________________
[3]
8 The diagram below represents the structure of mitochondrion.
Label the part of mitochondrion where molecules of ATP are synthesised. [1]
9 The graph shows the dependence of ADH concentration in blood on plasma osmolarity (a measure of the different solutes in plasma).
With reference to the graph, describe and explain the role of antidiuretic hormone (ADH) in water monitoring.
________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ [4]
10 The bar chart below shows the comparison of dialysis and kidney transplantation in terms of one-year, five-year, and ten-year survival rate.
- Define the term dialysis.
___________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ [1]
- State the advantages and disadvantages of kidney transplantation and dialysis.
Advantages | Disadvantages | |
Dialysis | ||
Kidney transplantation |
[4]
Mark scheme
Task № | Answer | Mark | Additional information |
1 (a) | D | 1 | |
1 (b) | The surface area to volume ratio decreases as cell size increases | 1 | AW ORA |
2 (a) | C | 1 | |
2 (b) | Active transport energy required/ need energy/use energy; against the concentration gradient/ from high concentration to low concentration. ORA – for passive transport | 1 1 [max 2] | A ATP |
3 | B | 1 | |
4 | A – 3,4 B – 1,2 | 1 1 [max 2] | 1 mark for one row |
5 | 2 Pyruvate, 2 NADH, 2ATP 4 acetyl CoA, 2 NADH, 2 CO2 6 NADH++H+, 2 FADH2, 4 CO2, 2 ATP | 1 1 1 [max 3] | 1 mark for all correct products in line |
6 | B | 1 | |
7 | Any three from:
| 1 1 1 [max 3] | AW |
8 | Crista (in correct place) | 1 | |
9 | Any two from for description the shape of the curve: 1) at the beginning of the curve, low and stable concentration of ADH in plasma; 2) higher solute in plasma/ thirst, higher concentration of ADH; 3) ref. to the figures from the graph Any two from for explanation in correct context 4) conserve body water; 5) reducing the loss of water in urine/ decreased formation of urine; 6) binds to receptors/ osmoreceptors/ aquaporin; 7) in the collecting ducts of the kidney; 8) controlled by a negative feedback. | 1 1 1 1 [max4] |
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10(a) | regular treatments to remove waste and extra fluid from the blood | 1 | AW |
10(b) | Dialysis Any one from: Advantages does not require recovery of the body after a dangerous surgery; use at home (perinatal dialysis). Any one from: Disadvantages life time is shorter; a blood stream infection; dialysis machine 3 times a week. Kidney transplantation Any one from: Advantages live longer; better quality of life; able to return to work, travel more freely; live without diet. Any one from: Disadvantages risks both during and after the surgery; expensive; difficult to find donor. | 1 1 1 1 [max4] | AVP |
Total | 25 |
SPECIFICATION OF SUMMATIVE ASSESSMENT FOR THE TERM 3
Review of summative assessment for the term 3
Duration of the summative assessment – 40 minutes
Total marks – 25 marks
Types of tasks:
MCH - Questions with multiple choice answers.
ShA - Questions that require short answer.
EA - Questions that require an extended answer.
The structure of the summative assessment
This Summative Assessment consists of 10 questions, including 2 questions with multiple choice answers (2 points) and 8 structural questions (23 points) that require short and extended answers. Several learning objectives from one unit can be integrated in structural questions.
In questions with multiple choice answers, the student chooses the correct answer from the proposed answers.
In questions that require short answers, the student writes the answer down in the form of a numerical value, a word or a short sentence.
In questions that require extended answers, the student should show the entire sequence of actions in solving problems to obtain the maximum mark. The ability of the student to choose and apply mathematical techniques in a number of mathematical contexts is assessed. Questions can consist of several structural questions/sub questions.
Annotations used in marking scheme
A – accept, i.e. example of another argument or possible answer;
I – ignore, i.e. part of the answer that is intended, but not required (e.g. units of measurement);
R – reject, i.e. do not award any point for this answer;
ORA – other reverse arguments, i.e. accept answers from the contrary perspective;
OWA – other word alterations, i.e. accept paraphrased answers;
Underline - underlined word is required to award point;
/ - answers given on both sides of slash are synonyms;
AVP – another valid point, i.e. answer which is correct, but has not been included into MS.
Characteristics of tasks of summative assessment for Term 3
Term | Learning objectives | Level of thinking skills | Quantity of tasks * | № of task* | Type of task* | Time to complete, min * | Quantity of marks * | Quantity of marks for the term | ||||||||||||||||||||||||||||
10.3А Cell cycle |
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| 4 | ||||||||||||||||||||||||||||
10.3В Regularities of heredity and variability |
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| 16 | ||||||||||||||||||||||||||||
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| 1 | 6 | ShA EA, |
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10.3С Evolutionary development and basics of breeding. Variety of living organisms |
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| 5 | ||||||||||||||||||||||||||||
| 25 |
Tasks for the Summative Assessment for the Term 3
1 Figure 1 shows part of the sequence of processes by which female gametes are produced.
Cells in germinal epithelium |
P |
Oogonia |
C |
Q |
Secondary oocyte |
Discuss differences between P and Q.
____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________[2]
2 Ageing is the process of becoming older.
Explain two biological changes in ageing.
1____________________________________________________________________________
2__________________________________________________________________________ [2]
3 Put a tick () near true statements and a cross () near false statements about phenotypic plasticity.
| Phenotypic plasticity is the response of individual phenotypes to environmental change. |
| Phenotypic plasticity in plants includes the timing of transition from vegetative to reproductive growth stage. |
| Phenotypic plasticity of the digestive system allows some animals to respond to changes in dietary nutrient composition. |
| The example of the Phenotypic plasticity is ability of living organisms to reflect, reradiate and diffuse light. |
[4]
4 In pea plant Pisum sativum alleles for color and shape of the seeds are not linked and locate on different chromosome. Spherical shape of seed (S) is dominant over dented shape (s). Green color (y) is recessive to yellow color (Y).
Two heterozygous for both traits individuals were crossed.
- Show the genotypes of parents.
______________________________________________ [1]
- Determine the genotypes of offspring for this crossing using Punnett square.
[2]
- Indicate the phenotypes of the offspring for this cross.
[1]
5 Match the characteristics of allelic and non-allelic genes.
Type of interaction | Characteristics | ||
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2. Non-allelic interaction |
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1___________________________________
2___________________________________
[2]
6 (a) (i) Define the term mutation.
__________________________________________________________________________ [1]
(ii) Name the types of DNA mutations.
__________________________________________________________________________ [1]
(b) Identify the causes of mutagenesis that are observed in different cells of human organism.
_______________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ [1]
Some of mutations can affect to the number of chromosomes.
(c) Give and describe one example of human diseases related to chromosome number anomalies.
_____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________[3]
7 Evolution is the change in the inherited traits of a population from generation to generation.
Explain how genetic variation maintains the process of Evolution.
________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ [2]
8 Indicate the mechanisms of speciation.
- Post-zygotic reproductive isolation
- Changing gene pools
- Geographical isolation
- Ecological separation
[1]
9 Fill a gap in the scheme in order to create an equation of disease-resistant wheat.
Wheat plants that have high-yield traits | ___________________ ___________________ | Disease -resistant wheat |
[1]
10 Define the correct geochronological sequence of eras in the history of the Earth.
- Archaean, Proterozoic, Paleozoic, Mesozoic, Cenozoic
- Proterozoic, Archean, Paleozoic, Mesozoic, Cenozoic
- Archaean, Paleozoic, Proterozoic, Cenozoic, Mesozoic
- Cenozoic, Mesozoic, Paleozoic, Proterozoic, Archean
[1]
Mark scheme
Task № | Answer | Mark | Additional information | |||||||||||||||||||||||||
1 | P – Mitosis/ 2n Q – Meiosis I/ n / arrested prophase | 1 1 [max 2] | AVP | |||||||||||||||||||||||||
2 | Any two from cells become less able to divide; the telomeres get shorter / get so short that the cell dies; waste products accumulate; connective tissue between the cells becomes stiffer; the maximum functional capacity of many organs decreases. | 1 1 [max 2] | AVP | |||||||||||||||||||||||||
3 | A– ✓ B– ✓ C– ✓ D– ✗ | 1 1 1 1 [max 4] | ||||||||||||||||||||||||||
4(i) | SsYy | 1 | ||||||||||||||||||||||||||
4(ii) |
| 2 | 1 mark for correct gametes 1 mark for correct genotypes | |||||||||||||||||||||||||
4 (iii) | 9 - spherical shape and yellow color 3 - dented shape and yellow color 3 - spherical shape and green color 1 - dented shape and green color | 1 | all phenotypes are correct | |||||||||||||||||||||||||
5 | 1 – A D 2 – B C
| 1 1 | 1 mark for the correct row | |||||||||||||||||||||||||
6 (a)(i) | change in the nucleic acid sequence/ an alteration in the genetic material | 1 | AVP | |||||||||||||||||||||||||
6 (ii) |
| 1 | 1 mark for all three types | |||||||||||||||||||||||||
6(b) | Any one from: 1)ref. physical factors with examples (high temperature, radiation, ultraviolet light) 2)ref. chemicals substances 3)faulty proofreading during replication | 1 [max 1] | ||||||||||||||||||||||||||
6 (c) | One correct example of diseases: Down syndrome/ Patau syndrome/ Edward's syndrome / Klinefelter syndrome/ Monosomy X (Turner's syndrome) and other) Two correct descriptions: the abnormal pair of chromosome; one feature. | 1 1 1 [max 3] | ||||||||||||||||||||||||||
7 | Any two from in the correct order: 1) new traits form from mutation/ transfer of genes between populations/ in migration/ between species/ in horizontal gene transfer; 2)heritable traits that are helpful for survival and reproduction; 3) organisms (with advantageous traits) pass on more copies of these heritable traits to the next generation; 4) adaptation occurs. | 1 1 [max 2] | AW | |||||||||||||||||||||||||
8 | C | 1 | ||||||||||||||||||||||||||
9 | wheat plants with disease-resistant traits | 1 | ||||||||||||||||||||||||||
10 | A | 1 | ||||||||||||||||||||||||||
Total | 25 |
SPECIFICATION OF SUMMATIVE ASSESSMENT FOR THE TERM 4
Review of summative assessment for the term 4
Duration of the summative assessment – 40 minutes
Total marks – 25 marks
Types of tasks:
MCH - Questions with multiple choice answers.
ShA - Questions that require short answer.
EA - Questions that require an extended answer.
The structure of the summative assessment
This Summative Assessment consists of 10 questions, including 3 questions with multiple choice answers (3 points) and 7 structural questions (22 points) that require short and extended answers. Several learning objectives from one unit can be integrated in structural questions.
In questions with multiple choice answers, the student chooses the correct answer from the proposed answers.
In questions that require short answers, the student writes the answer down in the form of a numerical value, a word or a short sentence.
In questions that require extended answers, the student should show the entire sequence of actions in solving problems to obtain the maximum mark. The ability of the student to choose and apply mathematical techniques in a number of mathematical contexts is assessed. Questions can consist of several structural questions/sub questions.
Annotations used in marking scheme
A – accept, i.e. example of another argument or possible answer;
I – ignore, i.e. part of the answer that is intended, but not required (e.g. units of measurement);
R – reject, i.e. do not award any point for this answer;
ORA – other reverse arguments, i.e. accept answers from the contrary perspective;
OWA – other word alterations, i.e. accept paraphrased answers;
Underline - underlined word is required to award point;
/ - answers given on both sides of slash are synonyms;
AVP – another valid point, i.e. answer which is correct, but has not been included into MS.
Characteristics of tasks of summative assessment for Term 4
Term | Learning objectives | Level of thinking skills | Quantity of tasks * | № of task* | Type of task* | Time to complete, min * | Quantity of marks * | Quantity of marks for the term | |||||||||||||||||||||
10.4А Coordination and regulation |
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10.4В Movement |
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| 5 | |||||||||||||||||||||
10.4С Biomedicine and bioinformatics | 10.4.4.2 study the mechanism of heart work an electrocardiogram | Application | 2 | 8.9 | MCH ShA | 5 | 5 | 5 | |||||||||||||||||||||
10.4D Biotechnology | 10.4.3.2 describe the importance of polymerase chain reaction in taxonomy, medicine and criminalistics | Application | 1 | 10 | EA | 5 | 3 | 3 | |||||||||||||||||||||
Total | 25 |
Tasks for the Summative Assessment for the term 4
1 Spinal cord provides several functions in organism.
Which of the statement(s) could correctly describe functions of the spinal cord?
- It connects a large part of the peripheral nervous system with the Brain.
- It can act as a nervous center and can work without the brain.
- It controls our thoughts, memory and speech.
- 1 only
- 1 and 2
- 3 only
- 1, 2 and 3
[1]
2 The Fig.2.1 shows the different parts of the brain.
Match the name of different lobes with their functions.
Lobes | Functions |
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Fig.2.1
[4]
3 The Fig.3.1 shows the structure of the synapse.
- Name the neurotransmitter
_______________________________________________ [1]
- With references to Figure 3.1 describe the mechanism of neurotransmitter action in the synapse.
_________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________[3]
Fig.3.1
4 Fig. 4.1 is a diagram of a reflex arc.
Fig. 4.1
Explain briefly how the stimulus at the finger produces an impulse in the sensory neuron.
_______________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________[3]
5 The figure shows the structure of striated muscles.
Identify the structure B.
- actin
- myosin
- I-band
- sarcomere
[1]
6 Put in correct order the mechanism of cross-bridge formation.
A | Electrical signal arrives at cell |
B | Myosin binds actin |
C | Troponin removes the blocking action of tropomyosin from the Actin binding sites |
D | Ca2+ binds to troponin |
E | Electrical signal causes Ca2+ release into the cell |
F | ATP binds to the myosin |
Correct order | Letter |
1 | A |
2 | |
3 | |
4 | |
5 | |
6 | F |
[2]
7 Match the characteristics with types of muscle fibers.
Types of muscle fibers | Characteristics | ||||
1 Fast-twitch muscle fibers | A Contract fast, producing a powerful action | ||||
2 Slow-twitch muscle fibers |
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1 ___________________________________________
2 ___________________________________________
[2]
8 Identify which row correctly describes the events during the cardiac cycle.
Nerve impulse from sino-atrial node (SAN) to | Nerve impulse from atrio-ventrical node (AVN) to | Nerve impulse from Purkyne tissue (PT) to | |
A | AVN | SAN | the ventricles |
B | PT | PT | the atria |
C | AVN | PT | the ventricles |
D | PT | SAN | the atria |
[1]
9 The Fig.9.1 shows electrocardiography of a heart in normal sinus rhythm.
Fig.9.1
Identify the parts of ECG in accordance with given description:
______ measures the time from the initial depolarization of the atria to the initial depolarization of the ventricles a downward deflection immediately preceding the ventricular contraction
______ depolarization of atria
______ the recovery of the ventricles.
______ the depolarization of the ventricles.
[4]
10 (a) Define the term polymerase chain reaction.
________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ [1]
(b) Describe two applications of polymerase chain reaction.
1____________________________________________________________________________
2__________________________________________________________________________ [2]
Mark scheme
Task № | Answer | Mark | Additional information | ||||||||||
1 | B | 1 | |||||||||||
2 |
| 4 | |||||||||||
3 (a) | acetylcholine | 1 | A any other example | ||||||||||
3(b) | any three from in the correct order:
| 1 1 1 [max3] | |||||||||||
4 | any three from in the correct order
| 1 1 1 [max 3] | |||||||||||
5 | B | 1 | |||||||||||
6 |
| 1 1 [max 2] | 1 mark for two letters in the correct order | ||||||||||
7 | 1 – A D E 2 – B C F | 1 1 | |||||||||||
8 | C | 1 | |||||||||||
9 | PR – interval; P – wave; T – wave; QRS –wave. | 1 1 1 1 | |||||||||||
10 (a) | make many copies of a particular region of DNA | 1 | AW | ||||||||||
10 (b) | any two from: ref. in forensics; ref. in taxonomy; ref. in medicine. | 1 1 [max 2] | A named exampes | ||||||||||
Total | 25 |
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